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Originally Posted by onelove24 Anyone else??? BUMP!!! |
ScaredSally is right. Even if the hysterectomy (which techncially speaking is nothing to do with the ovaries) was part of a procedure which involved removal of the ovaries, it would mean that in addition to removing your aunt's only source of estrogen it would remove only one of the sources of testosterone which is also produced in considerable quantities in the adrenals. Additionally, your aunt's body has undoubtedly been sensitized to respond to testosterone. The problem is that if we have PCOS our bodies, like those of some other women, have been sensitized to respond to testosterone in the early months of fetal life by exposure to male levels of testosterone. When PCOS starts to affect us in later life, the ability to respond to testosterone stimulation results in a rapid masculinization which can be masked by large amounts of estrogen but is a tendency that will always be there as long as testosterone is present in our system. If your aunt has her ovaries removed she will have testosterone but no estrogen, so if she has no hormones added to her body continually from an outside source she'll be more masculinized, rather than less. However, hrt is usually prescribed following removal of the ovaries, but that's not usually maintained on a long term basis. Adjusting to masculinization is usually rather easier than controlling it.